Page 46, Exercise 107, end of chapter XV. The sencence :The
Germans, with (their) sons and daughters, are hastening with
horses and wagons. is translated as :Germani cum filiis
filiabusque cum equis et carris properant/maturant. in the
answer key. Why is the cum used? I interpreted the English
sentence as: The Germans along with their sons and daughters are
fleeing by means of horses and wagons. So doesn't that make the
equis et carris ablatives of means, which according to D'Ooge
should not have a cum preceding them. So shouldn't the second
cum be absent in the snetence? One explanation I could think of
is that the horses and wagons are also ablatives of
accompaniment, but why not means? Could someone please help me
out here.