The reason they have been doing this is that union membership is
at much lower levels than they would like to see them. They have
made the argument that the laws are unfair and biased toward
management. These labor laws, which consist of the National
Labor Relations Act, the Labor-Management Relations Act and the
Labor Management Reporting and Disclosure Act were passed in
1935, 1947 and 1959 respectively. So, to echo my title, if labor
law is so unfair, why then was union membership at its peak in
the 1950's, with nearly 1/3 of the private sector workforce
belonging to unions? The same laws were in effect then as now.
Nothing has changed in the legislation. So why today is union
membership in the private sector down to less than 8%? The laws
have not gotten suddenly "unfair", they are the same as they
have always been. So what has changed? The reasons union
membership is at such a low level are many. Here are some of
them: - In the 1950s many unions became associated and
controlled by organized crime. That a