Here is a premise:
In recent decades, certain changes have taken place in the language that reflect voluntary choices of the words used to characterize people; these have focused largely on the conscious and conscientious substitution of neutral, sexless words like individual(s), person , and people for terms that normally denote only males.

Here is a hypothesis:
Over some years in the near past there have been a voluntary, deliberate change in word choices.

Is it possible to conclude that if the premise is true, then so is the hypothesis?
OPTIONS:
- yes
- it is not possible to tell
- no
yes