<p>Because Player 1 made the final raise, he should be the first to show his cards when players reach the showdown. However, according to <a href="http://www.wsop.com/poker-rules" rel="noreferrer">the World Series Of Poker rules</a>,</p>

<blockquote>
  <p>When a player holds a hand that is likely the winner, they should show that hand immediately to speed play.</p>
</blockquote>

<p>In this case, it appears Player 2, in an effort to speed up play, short-cutted the word "call" and went straight into the showdown. Showing your hand in response to a shove (an all-in raise) is definitely considered a call by poker pros. </p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-09T15:58:44.607Z
2016-05-09T15:58:44.607Z
corsiKa
<p>When there are only two players left, player 2 showing his hand hurts him and no one else. Thus you can just ask him to make an official move (i.e. actually call), and then proceed with the game. This would work even if the previous bid wasn't All In - player 1 could continue playing with full knowledge of player 2's hand, and player 2 has only himself to blame.</p>

<p>If there are more than two players left, however, showing your hand is unacceptable because it tells the remaining players things about each others' hands (i.e. which cards the others are not holding).</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-11-27T00:04:41.053Z
It could be angle shooting: show the hand, then based on the opponent's facial expression, decide whether to claim it was a fold.
Acccumulation
CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-09T03:20:25.810Z
2016-05-09T03:20:25.810Z
Benjamin Cosman
<p>It depends on the board and how strict you want to be. Since it's a home game, it's probably informal and you wouldn't be sticklers for the rules, and count it as a call (or ask to clarify). If the full house is the nuts, then that would also be justification for considering it a call. But if Player 2 has the worst full house the board allows, or if the board allowed a straight flush, and Player 1's betting pattern implies one of the better hands, then some skepticism as to whether Player 2 intended to call is warranted.</p>

CC BY-SA 4.0
2022-11-27T00:14:51.190Z
2022-11-27T00:14:51.190Z
Acccumulation
<p>This is regarding a Texas Holdem No Limit home game.</p>
<ul>
<li>After the flop, Player 1 and Player 2 are the only remaining betting players.</li>
<li>After the river card, Player 1 goes all in.</li>
<li>Then Player 2 decides to call, but instead of saying &quot;call&quot; he says &quot;full house&quot; and flips his cards over.</li>
</ul>
<p>Player 2 has the highest hand.</p>
<p>What happens in this situation?</p>

CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-08T20:39:10.203Z
I think that would depend on where you are playing.
Joe W
CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-08T20:45:29.643Z
After thinking about it I think it would just let other people fold/bet as they wanted with the new info
Joe W
CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-09T21:22:48.593Z
@JoeW - Seems like there aren't any "other players", just Player 1 and 2. Since Player 1 has already declared all-in, they are already all in. Are you suggesting they should be allowed to retract the all-in bet and fold if they want to?
Duncan
CC BY-SA 3.0
2016-05-09T21:30:12.527Z
@Duncan While this case may only involve 2 players I thought it would be wise to consider a situation where more players where involved who had not finished betting/calling yet.
Joe W
<house-rules><poker-texas-holdem>
Texas Holdem All-In Question
user16152
# Texas Holdem All-In Question

(Asked by: username_0 on 2016-05-08)

This is regarding a Texas Holdem No Limit home game.

* After the flop, Player 1 and Player 2 are the only remaining betting players.
* After the river card, Player 1 goes all in.
* Then Player 2 decides to call, but instead of saying "call" he says "full house" and flips his cards over.

Player 2 has the highest hand.

What happens in this situation?

**Tags:** house-rules, poker-texas-holdem

> **Comments:**
> **username_1**: I think that would depend on where you are playing.  
> **username_1**: After thinking about it I think it would just let other people fold/bet as they wanted with the new info  
> **username_2**: @JoeW - Seems like there aren't any "other players", just Player 1 and 2. Since Player 1 has already declared all-in, they are already all in. Are you suggesting they should be allowed to retract the all-in bet and fold if they want to?  
> **username_1**: @username_2 While this case may only involve 2 players I thought it would be wise to consider a situation where more players where involved who had not finished betting/calling yet.  

---

## 3 answers

### Answer by username_3 on 2016-05-09. Score: 13

Because Player 1 made the final raise, he should be the first to show his cards when players reach the showdown. However, according to [the World Series Of Poker rules](http://www.wsop.com/poker-rules),

> When a player holds a hand that is likely the winner, they should show that hand immediately to speed play.

In this case, it appears Player 2, in an effort to speed up play, short-cutted the word "call" and went straight into the showdown. Showing your hand in response to a shove (an all-in raise) is definitely considered a call by poker pros.


---

### Answer by username_4 on 2016-05-09. Score: 8

When there are only two players left, player 2 showing his hand hurts him and no one else. Thus you can just ask him to make an official move (i.e. actually call), and then proceed with the game. This would work even if the previous bid wasn't All In - player 1 could continue playing with full knowledge of player 2's hand, and player 2 has only himself to blame.

If there are more than two players left, however, showing your hand is unacceptable because it tells the remaining players things about each others' hands (i.e. which cards the others are not holding).

> **Comments:**
> **username_5**: It could be angle shooting: show the hand, then based on the opponent's facial expression, decide whether to claim it was a fold.  

---

### Answer by username_5 on 2022-11-27. Score: -2

It depends on the board and how strict you want to be. Since it's a home game, it's probably informal and you wouldn't be sticklers for the rules, and count it as a call (or ask to clarify). If the full house is the nuts, then that would also be justification for considering it a call. But if Player 2 has the worst full house the board allows, or if the board allowed a straight flush, and Player 1's betting pattern implies one of the better hands, then some skepticism as to whether Player 2 intended to call is warranted.


---

