The Von Neumann-Wigner interpretation as the explanation for the fine-tuning problem and the existence of free-will
Disclaimer: Some of the concepts I'm using here are considered by some to be pseudo-science. I do not intend to have a hocus-pocus discussion and fairies and wizards here, my intention is to have a rational scientific discussion. If anyone feels that I am invoking any nonsensical ideas please do point them out to me with clear reasoning.
There exists a theory supposed to resolve the measurement problem in quantum physics which goes by the name of the Von Neumann-Wigner interpetation (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Von_Neumann%E2%80%93Wigner_interpretation) and I think it has some stigma associated with it. Be that as it may, consider for a moment that by some as yet unknown mechanism, something - which I will refer to simply as the abstract, "consciousness" for the sake of convenience - is capable not only of initiating wave-function collapse, but furthermore, capable of having some influence on the outcome of the observation. This is a supposition, I have no strong proof of this.
Given that, I reason that one can explain at least the following 2 problems in our current understanding of the universe. Firstly, the so called, "Fine-tuning Problem" which asks why the universe seems to have such carefully chosen parameters. And secondly, the action of "free-will" and where it might have a place in our reality.
The Fine-tuning Problem
I will assume that everyone is aware of this and also aware that the Weak Antropic Principle is often postulated as an explanation to this problem by suggesting that given a large selection of possible universes, the one with the right conditions for sapient life is the one which will have people like us asking such philosophical questions as "why is the universe the way it is". However, this theory relies on invoking the notion of multiple universes in some form and often comes hand in hand with multiverse theory which seems like a stretch.
Now, here is my question. Is it not possible to validate the WAP using simple quantum physics provided that the above supposition is correct? An "un-observed" quantum system will evolve in a superposition of states until it is observed and collapsed. 298
So then, we do not need multiverse theory to explain this problem. The universe can be said to have evolved in multiple possibilities as a quantum system for some period of time (effectively having many universes evolving simultaneously) before one of the many branches of possibility 'lucks out' (statistical inevitability) and ultimately gives rise to the first ever sapient life. In that "instant" (there is no real concept of time in this abstract possibility space?), the whole universal wave-function is collapsed due to the presence of an observer, and the history of that "branch" is retroactively "collapsed" into existence. Thereby explaining the Fine-tuning problem without the need to invoke multiverse theory.
Free Will
In ancient times, <PERSON> postulated that the universe was divided into two realms, the physical world, and the mental (or spirit) world (this theory is known as "Descartes Duality". As we all know, this theory falls apart because in order for the "spirit" world to have any influence on the physical world, there would need to be an exchange of energy between the two worlds and this would violate the principle of energy conservation.
However, is it not true than in the funky realm of quantum mechanics, a system - right before the moment of collapse - can have many possible outcomes (sometimes infinite). If my above supposition is correct, then this abstract "consciousness" (whatever that really is) may be able to subtly influence the outcome of quantum measurements and thus, influence the evolution of the physical world from the "outside" which in turn opens the door for the existence of free-will. In the aftermath of the Newtonian revolution, the concepts of materialism, determinism, and strong objectivity came about and declared the concept of "free-will" as unscientific. It would seem to me that since the advent of quantum physics in the early 20th century, the material paradigm should have loosened its grip! We now know that the physical reality we live in is - at best - the tip of a very abstract iceberg. We are now understanding the universe in terms of abstract, infinite-dimensional Hilbert spaces! We have such mad concepts as non-locality and the uncertainty principle and yet, it seems almost as if the mainstream scientific community is still stuck in the 17th century! Why is the concept of materialism still so prevalent in modern science? 283