How is it possible, I asked, that almost all of them had instinctively favored free trade, which entails a similar – in fact, most likely greater – redistribution from losers to winners?
¿Cómo es posible, pregunté, que casi todos ellos hubieran estado instintivamente a favor del libre comercio, que involucra una redistribución similar -de hecho, probablemente mayor- de perdedores a ganadores?