 Differently put, even in the absence of public health emergencies (which can warrant transgressions like forcing individuals to enter quarantine), the widely accepted standard in public health seems more intrusive than the one in clinical care. As further illustration, many would agree that it is legitimate to implement smoke-free bar laws that somewhat increase anti-smoking stigma, partly in order to goad smokers to quit (and not only as measures to protect third parties from second-hand smoke). But most would condemn a clinician who deliberately boosts stigma to goad an individual patient to quit smoking (e.g. mocking the stink), and might explain that such pressure undermines the patient’s freedom to decide whether to quit. Is one of these arguably different approaches to informed consent right and the other one, wrong? Or is informed consent morally required for some interventions and not for others?