 But if there is no objective asymmetry, then what is the explanation? Of course, we can still define causal order in terms of a causal betweenness relation, and we can say that the perceived order follows the objective causal order of the perceptions, in this sense: on the one hand, where A is perceived as being followed by B, then the perception of B is always causally between the perception of A and the perception of A’s being followed by B (the dash represents a symmetric causal relation):