 The objects described in [v] do not follow from God’s nature at all, in which case the modal transfer principle will not be satisfied. Insofar as that is the only available source for their necessity, it follows that they do not exist necessarily. But what is the difference between the objects described in [iv] and the objects described in [v]? In one sense, nothing: they are the same finite modes! That cannot be the full story, however, lest there be no explanation why the modes in [iv] follow from the nature of God whereas those very same modes in [v] do not. The only difference between [iv] and [v] is how a mode is considered  in each case. (Although Garrett himself uses this “considered” claim, he does not say whether he thinks there are any true ways of considering objects corresponding to [v].)