 After weeks of effort and numerous failures, suppose Ginger comes up with an excellent new recipe for spicy noodles—a recipe that she keeps in her mind and does not write down. Would anyone argue that Ginger does not have at least some minimal moral claim to control the recipe? Suppose that Fred samples some of Ginger’s noodles and desires to purchase the recipe. Is there anything morally suspicious with an agreement between them that grants Fred a limited right to use Ginger’s recipe provided that Fred does not disclose the process? Alas, Fred didn’t have to agree to the terms and, no matter how tasty the noodles, he could eat something else or create his own recipe. Arguably, part of the moral weightiness of the agreement between Ginger and Fred relies on the fact that Ginger holds legitimate title to the recipe. A slightly different way to put this Lockean argument for intellectual property rights is: