 What, then, of Kant’s famous contention that endorsing transcendental realism commits one to empirical idealism (A368–9)? It would seem, prima facie, that Berkeley ought to be committed to empirical idealism, and yet Kant interprets him as rejecting transcendental realism. I take it that Berkeley avoids transcendental realism, and therefore merely empirical idealism, by defending a more radical dogmatic idealism (B274–5). According to that view, there are no objects or properties that are independent of  intuition.[29]  In contrast, Kant interprets the Leibnizians as thinking both that the order of substances is transcendentally real, i.e. independent of intuition per se, and also as thinking that well-founded phenomena and their relations are not real—the latter emerge from our misrepresentation of the underlying non-relational monadic reality. The phenomenal world of objects bearing spatial and causal relations is merely ideal. It is perhaps in that sense that the Leibnizians are committed to empirical  idealism.[30]