 Assuming that Strawson’s observations are correct, should we say (a) that non-topical definites are non-presuppositional, or (b) that they do have presuppositions, whose failure happens not to affect speakers’ truth-value judgments? Some authors argue for the former (e.g., Reinhart 1982, Horn 1989); this is Strawson’s view, as well. Von Fintel (2004) argues for the latter: topical or non-topical, “the king of France” always triggers the presupposition that there is a king of France; it’s just our truth-value judgments that fluctuate.