  To understand why the paradox doesn't constitute a problem for mathematics we need to ask two questions. In the simple formulation of the paradox given above, we noted that there's a specific  mˆ  ∈ M such that M  ⊨ “mˆ is uncountable.” Literally, of course, this isn't quite right. What we really mean here is that there's a rather complicated formula in the language of formal set theory—a formula which mathematicians sometimes find it convenient to abbreviate with the English expression “x is uncountable”—and that M satisfies this particular formula at mˆ.  For convenience, let's denote the relevant formula by “Ω(x).” Then we can rephrase the fact mentioned above by saying that M  ⊨ Ω[mˆ].[13]  Our two questions, then, are these: