 Of course, the majority of specific names do not appear in any dictionary. Moreover, it should not be thought that dictionary “definitions” always purport to give the meaning of the word they appear under (one entry for “Socrates” on Wiktionary just says “A male given name of mostly historical use”). But suppose we have a condition satisfied by, and only by, the referent of “Socrates”; one which is, moreover, listed below the name in certain dictionaries. For the sake of argument, suppose it is the teacher of Plato and Xenophon. Would it follow that “Socrates” meant the teacher of Plato and Xenophon?