  Is there a way to justify such a move? In this connection, one might wonder if it would help the moral realist to be a non-naturalist about the nature of moral properties, i.e., to hold that they are not reducible to natural properties and (on some characterizations of the theory) to assume that they are sui generis and causally inert. That is an issue which has not been in the foreground in the debate following the Horgan’s and Timmons’ contributions, as they specifically target Boyd’s (and Brink’s) naturalist form of realism.