 Given ‘in virtue’ doesn’t express metaphysical grounding in (4) on its intended use, what does it express? One attractive option is to think that ‘in virtue’ in (4) is meant to be understood as having the same effect as ‘is a matter of’ and that, on this reading, it expresses the identity relation. On this reading, ‘\(\varphi\) in virtue of it being the case that \(\psi\)’ is true iff the state of affairs expressed by \(\phi\) is identical to the state of affairs expressed by \(\varphi\). Since it follows from (6) that, on this reading ‘\(\varphi\) in virtue of how \(x\) is intrinsically’ is true iff there is a sentence \(\phi\) that expresses a true state of affairs that is intrinsically about \(x\), (10) follows from (4) on this reading of ‘in virtue’. 