What is the relationship between “it” in the second sentence and its antecedent expression in the first? On the one hand, it cannot be coreference. If the pronoun were coreferential with its antecedent, the indefinite “a donkey” would have to be a referential term, which seems unlikely, e.g., because the negation of [5a] says not that there is a donkey that Pedro fails to own, but rather that he doesn’t own any donkey, and furthermore, if [5a] is negated, the anaphoric link between the pronoun and its antecedent is severed: