 This is a notoriously difficult question facing Spinoza’s metaphysics, one that was raised by Leibniz just a year after Spinoza’s death (Leibniz 1969, 203). Sometimes this worry was historically expressed as whether Spinoza can “derive” the finite from the infinite, but it is not really a question of logical deduction (Hübner 2014). How can Spinoza believe both that God is the cause of all things and that finite things follow only from other finite things?