  Does this mean that Italos understands the genera in the particulars as referring to forms which are particular? In other words, does this mean that he interprets Aristotle’s immanent forms as particular rather than universal? The pedigree of such an interpretation is not negligible; both Proclus in his Elements of Theology as well as his teacher Syrianus in his commentary on Aristotle’s Metaphysics viewed the immanent forms as particulars, without implying in any way that on this point they disagreed with Aristotle. And although Ammonius is not clear on this subject, there is no reason to believe that he was not here in agreement with these other Neoplatonists. This, of course, does not mean that such an interpretation of Aristotle’s theory has to be the right one. But it is reasonable to think that, by Italos’ time, treating Aristotle’s immanent forms as particulars was an acceptable, if not the standard, interpretation.