 Supp: yes. We had an example above. That most of my probability goes to \({\sim}A\) leaves open the question whether or not \(A \amp B\) is more probable than \(A \amp{\sim}B\). If \(\mathbf{p}(A \amp{\sim}B)\) is greater than \(\mathbf{p}(A \amp B)\), I think it’s unlikely that if \(A, B\). That’s compatible with thinking it likely that \({\sim}A\).