 Arguments of this sort had been made in the scholastic disputes between realists and nominalists: and Peirce was steeped in the medieval literature on these topics. He need not have gone so far as to make point \((\gamma)\), i.e., to argue that first-order logic is specially privileged. That would in any case have run contrary to his logical pluralism. But he did have the tools to make point \((\beta)\), and to emphasize that there is an important gulf separating second-order logic from first-order, just as there is an important gulf separating first-order logic from the Boolean propositional calculus. Why did he not make these points already in 1885?