 Precisely because it is a culpability test, the foreseeability test becomes subject to its own policy-based objection. The objection is that of redundancy. Why should we ask two culpability questions in determining blameworthiness? After we have satisfied ourselves that a defendant is culpable—either because she intended or foresaw some harm, or because she was unreasonable in not foreseeing some harm, the foreseeability test bids us to ask “Was the harm foreseeable?” This is redundant, because any harm intended or foreseen is foreseeable, and any harm foreseeable enough to render an actor unreasonable for not foreseeing it, is also foreseeable.