 What all this has to do with the intentional fallacy is this. The intentionalist shouldn’t claim that (1) entails (2), for that claim is subject to the numerous counterarguments that Beardsley makes full use of. But the anti-intentionalist, such as Beardsley, shouldn’t claim that there’s “no logical relation” between (1) and (2), for there clearly is, even on his own showing, a causally grounded, empirically based, standard inductive relation between the two. The intentionalist shouldn’t rejoice at this admission, however. For two reasons, such a relation tells us nothing of any significance about the proper way to interpret art. First, similar causal relations can be found to obtain in virtually every domain of inquiry, and they tell us nothing significant about proper methodology in those domains. The fact that tall parents generally have tall children, and tall children generally have tall parents, is of no help in establishing proper methodology in genetics, or even in telling us where to begin our investigation. Second, and more importantly, being founded on a causal connection between two distinct things, namely the artist’s intention and the meaning of his work, the empirical generalization that underlies the inference from (1) to (2) presupposes that there’s a way to identify the meaning of an artist’s work independent of consulting his intentions. That’s not something the intentionalist who relies only on a causal connection between the two should be very happy about, for it suggests that the artist’s intentions are altogether extrinsic to and independent of the meaning of the artist’s work.