 If Socrates takes virtue to be a kind of knowledge, then he holds a view known as intellectualism. Does Socrates, or does he not, believe that virtue is to be understood on the analogy with expert knowledge? If he believes that virtue is instrumental to happiness (as some scholars hold), then he might well believe that virtue is a kind of practical knowledge, and the analogy would be helpful. If he believes (as other scholars hold) that virtue is at least partly constitutive of happiness, and therefore good in itself, then the analogy seems misleading, since bodies of expert knowledge are generally valued as merely instrumental for their goals. If Socrates does not subscribe to the analogy, however, why does he use it in argument? He mostly uses it in argument in the context of the larger question whether virtue can be taught, probably on the assumption that, if it can be taught, it can be taught as expert knowledge is taught. But Socrates questions whether it can be taught at all. The  Meno  will explore a process of learning without teaching; this process is known as recollection. Many scholars are moving to the view that Socrates uses the techne analogy dialectically to refute those who claim to teach virtue.