 If, in fact, Wittgenstein did not read and/or failed to understand Gödel’s proof through at least 1941, how would he have responded if and when he understood it as (at least) a proof of the undecidability of P in PM on the assumption of PM’s consistency? Given his syntactical conception of mathematics, even with the extra-mathematical application criterion, he would simply say that P, qua expression syntactically independent of PM, is not a proposition of PM, and if it is syntactically independent of all existent mathematical language-games, it is not a mathematical proposition. Moreover, there seem to be no compelling non-semantical reasons—either intra-systemic or extra-mathematical—for Wittgenstein to accommodate P by including it in PM or by adopting a non-syntactical conception of mathematical truth (such as Tarski-truth (Steiner 2000)). Indeed, Wittgenstein questions the intra-systemic and extra-mathematical usability of P in various discussions of Gödel in the Nachlass and, at (§19), he emphatically says that one cannot “make the truth of the assertion [‘P’ or ‘Therefore P’] plausible to me, since you can make no use of it except to do these bits of legerdemain”.