 Let us consider, then, the relevance of this distinction. On the one hand, Rowe is certainly right that any criticism that claims that one is not justified in inferring (2) unless one has additional information to the effect that unobserved \(A\)s are not likely to differ from observed \(A\)s with respect to the possession of property \(B\) entails inductive skepticism.  But, by contrast, it is not true that this is so if one rejects, instead, the inference to (1). For one might reject the latter inference on the ground that while, given any particular \(A\), it is likely that that \(A\) is a \(B\), it is not likely that all \(A\)s are \(B\)s. (Compare the situation with a very long conjunction: given any particular conjunct, it may be likely that that conjunct is true, while being very unlikely that every conjunct, and hence the conjunction as a whole, is true.)