  Infinite modes exist necessarily because they follow necessarily from something that exists necessarily, namely God. What about finite things like furniture and people? This much seems clear: if a finite mode follows from an infinite mode or from substance itself, then by the modal transfer principle, it exists necessarily too. But does any finite mode follow from an infinite mode or from substance? This is where the aforementioned “gap” between infinite and finite modes becomes modally significant. Consider what Spinoza says in the lengthy and important demonstration of Ip28: