 Commentators have disagreed about whether there is any underlying philosophical unity to Kant’s notion of purposiveness, and, in particular, whether the notion of purposiveness which figures in the aesthetic context is the same as that which figures in Kant’s account of organisms. Guyer takes Kant to be operating with two different senses of “purposiveness”, one applying to artifacts (and, presumably, organisms), the other applying to objects of aesthetic appreciation. While purposiveness in the former sense corresponds to Kant’s account of purposiveness at §10 in terms of the notion of design, the notion of purposiveness as it applies to beautiful objects does not involve the idea of real or apparent design, but simply that of the satisfaction of an aim or objective (1979 [1997: 190ff]; see also 1993: 417n.39).