 Does the passage imply that Socrates is a hedonist? Protagoras does not accept the narrow hedonism of Socrates’ premise, so it appears that the hedonism is Socrates’ own. It is not anyone else’s. And yet we know that Socrates is elsewhere opposed to hedonism; his solution to the ethical problem of the Crito is based not on pleasure but on what, after serious consideration, he believes justice to require. There is no consensus on how to solve the puzzle. Could Socrates defend his doctrine on knowledge and acrasia here without the hedonist premise? In the Republic he will maintain at least part of that doctrine by introducing a division of the soul into three parts. But if the soul is undivided, hedonism may be Socrates’ best defense (Moss 2014). In view of other dialogues, however, it is likely that Socrates is using hedonism to build a trap for Protagoras. Absent hedonism, what could a Protagoras teach that would amount to virtue?