 While Kant does clearly allude to this theoretical background, it is noteworthy that views of the sort he defends in the Aesthetic—that space and time are transcendentally ideal, that they are mere “forms” of intuition, that they depend upon the “subjective constitution of the mind,” and so on—do not obviously make contact with the Leibniz/Newton debate. This raises questions about Kant’s use of the Leibniz-Newton background. First, how does Kant understand the Leibnizian and the Newtonian conceptions of space and time? Does he think of them solely as views on what I have called the status of space vis-à-vis objects and relations, or does he think that they contain, or perhaps entail, views on other topics, such as the character of our representations of space and time? Does Kant regard himself as needing to undermine either, or both, of these prior conceptions in order to support his conclusion that space and time are transcendentally ideal? Does Kant’s rejection of both the Leibnizian and the Newtonian conceptions as types of “transcendental realism” illuminate what he means by transcendental idealism? And finally, is Kant on secure ground in characterizing his predecessors’ views in this way? These questions will help to guide the discussion below.