  Aristotle’s account of the PNC has been challenged anew by modern-day dialetheists, who hold that there are some true contradictions, and that Aristotle’s discussion fails to show otherwise. One approach is to argue that some of Aristotle’s discussion of PNC begs the question in favor of PNC. (Of course, Aristotle would agree that any argument in favor of PNC must beg the question.) Another approach is for dialetheists to refuse to let the Aristotelian reformulate their supposed counterexamples to PNC by adding qualifications so that these supposed counterexamples do not violate PNC after all. The Aristotelian can counter that without those qualifications the dialetheist has not said anything meaningful at all.  Finally, the dialetheist may ask how Aristotle would deal with the liar’s paradoxical sentence “I am lying”. Why is this not both true and false at the same time as the dialetheist contends? 