 What sorts of claims are we talking about here? Not the claim that Socrates taught Plato: this, intuitively, could turn out to be false. But what about the claim that it could turn out false that Socrates taught Plato. The justification for this claim was not observational evidence, but an intuition about a hypothetical scenario, and what we would say about Socrates in that scenario. We felt that if the true source of Plato’s character had died before Plato was born, then it would follow that Socrates did not teach Plato. But whence this judgment? Perhaps it stems from the conviction that, roughly, “Socrates” will refer to whoever turns out to be the actual source of the eponymous character in Plato’s dialogues (and other similar traditions). This is not quite a priori either. As a claim, it stands or falls on our empirical knowledge of the relevant traditions. Still, one imagines the claim could be winnowed down further, until, as it were, all the a posteriori chaff is removed. The remaining polished kernel could then serve as the apriorist meaning of “Socrates”.