 Can a deflationist apply the standard deflationary response to this argument? Doing so would seem to involve rejecting the inference from C2 to C3. After all, the standard reply would say that the role that the appeal to truth plays in P1, the apparent causal generalization, is simply its generalizing role of expressing a potentially infinite, disjointed conjunction of unrelated causal connections (cf. Leeds 1995). So, applying this deflationary response basically hinges on the plausibility of rejecting the initial assumption that there is no distinction between appearing in a causal-explanatory generalization and being a causal-explanatory property.