 Now, the central question in the debate concerns how the moral properties of an option O are related to the moral properties of the options entailed by performing O. This abstract question can be made clearer by considering an example. Suppose that I have good reason to ⟨drink a soda⟩ and good reason to ⟨drink a Coke⟩. Those in the maximalism/omnism debate are interested in whether the reason I have for performing one these options grounds the reason I have for performing the other. Is it the case that I have reason to ⟨drink a soda⟩ in virtue of my having reason to ⟨drink a Coke⟩ or vice versa? Or is there no grounding relation between my reason(s) to perform these options?