 If this argument is correct, then it is impossible to define epistemic modal properties in terms of non-epistemic ones, or vice versa. But what about metaphysical and nomic necessity? Suppose for the sake of the argument that there is such a thing as nomic necessity (a form of necessity associated with the laws of nature) but that contingentism about the natural laws is true, so that nomic necessity is indeed distinct from metaphysical necessity. Can we define one of these properties in terms of the other? The most natural way of doing this would be to say that